Lou recently, as well as in the past, brought up something of importance: mainly that referring to the bible as "the" word of God is wrong.
I want to understand this more fully though. I think I understand what you, (Lou) are saying, in that the Word of God is clearly a person, Jesus Christ himself. Jesus is not a book, and the way some people (myself included at times) regard the bible is actually idolatrous in that they hold these mere words up higher than the author of these words.
So I know who the Word of God is....
But... what is the word of God? I say that because in the scriptures we do have, there are times when it seems the words "word of God," are used to refer to what is written in this book that we have. The phrase, "the word of God" in the scriptures more often than not does not refer to the scriptures when it is used, but sometimes it does, at least it seems to me.
So, would it be accurate to call the scriptures "part of the word of God." Knowing that they aren't "The Word of God," but they still make up a part of what the scriptures refer to as the "word of God?"
Examples:
Matthew 15:6 KJV says: And honour not his father or his mother, he shall be free. Thus have ye made the commandment of God of none effect by your tradition.
But
Matthew 15:6 NIV says: they are not to ‘honor their father or mother’ with it. Thus you nullify the word of God for the sake of your tradition.
The Textus Receptus (KJV) actually has the word ἐντολὴν (commandment) but the GNT Morphological by Nestle or whoever (NIV) has λόγον (word) there. It's scary to me that we have two different words for the same verse.... but, is Jesus referring to the scriptures delivered to Moses as the "word of God?"
1 Corinthians 14: KJV 36 What? came the word of God out from you? or came it unto you only? 37 If any man think himself to be a prophet, or spiritual, let him acknowledge that the things that I write unto you are the commandments of the Lord.
The words "word" and "commandment" seem to be used almost as synonyms in much of the New Testament, but isn't Paul refering to written words when he says "the word of God," here?
Acts 13:44 KJV And the next sabbath day came almost the whole city together to hear the word of God.
I don't think Paul and Barnabas just read straight from the scriptures, but expounded and prophesied to them the scriptures... but it is still kind of referring to the written word isn't it?
2 Corinthians 4:2 KJV But have renounced the hidden things of dishonesty, not walking in craftiness, nor handling the word of God deceitfully; but by manifestation of the truth commending ourselves to every man's conscience in the sight of God.
Could be something else, but context seems to me like it's talking about the scriptures?
I'm just trying to figure out if it is biblically accurate to refer to the bible as the word of God in some sense. The scriptures are surely not the Word of God. But it seems to me the label applies to them at least in some sense or way at times.
:unsure:
Travis
I want to understand this more fully though. I think I understand what you, (Lou) are saying, in that the Word of God is clearly a person, Jesus Christ himself. Jesus is not a book, and the way some people (myself included at times) regard the bible is actually idolatrous in that they hold these mere words up higher than the author of these words.
So I know who the Word of God is....
But... what is the word of God? I say that because in the scriptures we do have, there are times when it seems the words "word of God," are used to refer to what is written in this book that we have. The phrase, "the word of God" in the scriptures more often than not does not refer to the scriptures when it is used, but sometimes it does, at least it seems to me.
So, would it be accurate to call the scriptures "part of the word of God." Knowing that they aren't "The Word of God," but they still make up a part of what the scriptures refer to as the "word of God?"
Examples:
Matthew 15:6 KJV says: And honour not his father or his mother, he shall be free. Thus have ye made the commandment of God of none effect by your tradition.
But
Matthew 15:6 NIV says: they are not to ‘honor their father or mother’ with it. Thus you nullify the word of God for the sake of your tradition.
The Textus Receptus (KJV) actually has the word ἐντολὴν (commandment) but the GNT Morphological by Nestle or whoever (NIV) has λόγον (word) there. It's scary to me that we have two different words for the same verse.... but, is Jesus referring to the scriptures delivered to Moses as the "word of God?"
1 Corinthians 14: KJV 36 What? came the word of God out from you? or came it unto you only? 37 If any man think himself to be a prophet, or spiritual, let him acknowledge that the things that I write unto you are the commandments of the Lord.
The words "word" and "commandment" seem to be used almost as synonyms in much of the New Testament, but isn't Paul refering to written words when he says "the word of God," here?
Acts 13:44 KJV And the next sabbath day came almost the whole city together to hear the word of God.
I don't think Paul and Barnabas just read straight from the scriptures, but expounded and prophesied to them the scriptures... but it is still kind of referring to the written word isn't it?
2 Corinthians 4:2 KJV But have renounced the hidden things of dishonesty, not walking in craftiness, nor handling the word of God deceitfully; but by manifestation of the truth commending ourselves to every man's conscience in the sight of God.
Could be something else, but context seems to me like it's talking about the scriptures?
I'm just trying to figure out if it is biblically accurate to refer to the bible as the word of God in some sense. The scriptures are surely not the Word of God. But it seems to me the label applies to them at least in some sense or way at times.
:unsure:
Travis
Comment